posted by Mike | 5:45 PM |
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Since last evening I have been puzzling over the fact that McCain, after winning 36% of the votes in Florida, will get ALL 57 convention delegates and Mitt will get none, despite receiving 31% of the vote. I know that Florida is a "winner take all" state, a principle commented on by Bob Novak,
who wrote of Mitt's loss in Florida and concluded where things go from here:
The winner-take-all method (by district or statewide) used by Republicans, in contrast to the Democrats' proportional representation, makes McCain a commanding favorite for the nomination.
Can someone please explain why "winner take all" can be considered to be a justifiable practice, even in a
representative democracy? The method chosen by each state is of course a decision made by the various political parties, but I fail to see how the concept tracks with commonly accepted democratic principles. My undergraduate degree is in political science, but the practice still makes no sense to me.
Comments?
Mike B.
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